The entire premise of the campaign against progressive Christianity by eight fundamentalist pastors in Fountain Hills of course is their idea of absolute inerrancy of “the Bible.”
Many problems at once arise with that premise:
The first immediate question is exactly which out of many Christian Biblical canons out there -- ranging from the 66 Protestant books to the 81 of Ethiopian Orthodox Tewahedo Church -- any fundamentalist might “inspirationally” feel as '”absolutely inerrant.”
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Inerrant?
Posted
Chuck Jambotkar
The entire premise of the campaign against progressive Christianity by eight fundamentalist pastors in Fountain Hills of course is their idea of absolute inerrancy of “the Bible.”
Many problems at once arise with that premise:
The first immediate question is exactly which out of many Christian Biblical canons out there -- ranging from the 66 Protestant books to the 81 of Ethiopian Orthodox Tewahedo Church -- any fundamentalist might “inspirationally” feel as '”absolutely inerrant.”
Next, in English alone just Protestant canon has many versions: KJV, AKJV, NKJV, ASV, CEB, CEV, DBY, DRA, ESV, ISV, NASB, NIV, and so on.
Ultimately, there has to be just one version of whichever canon which can be “absolutely inerrant.” Who gets to declare it, presumably through his own “divine inspiration?”
Again, whichever Biblical canon was originally in Hebrew, Aramaic or Koine Greek. So besides “inspirationally” deciding which documents in those languages had to be “divinely inspired” and which had to be otherwise, different translators had to “divinely determine” what exact meanings many words “must have” carried in the minds of original writers (or scribes of speakers).
Now, a different matter: Fundamentalists commonly point to Timothy 2 3:16 – “All scripture is given by inspiration of God,..."-- as “the proof” of “absolute inerrancy” of “the Bible” (of whichever version in English of whichever Biblical canon).
That “proof” is completely fallacious because it involves self-pointing: According to it, whichever “Bible” is “absolutely inerrant” because inside itself there is an assertion that it is God inspired.
The next thorny problem is: Who would know which oral traditions and writings “Timothy” might have had in his mind when he had referred to “all scripture”? Also, “Timothy” never said that his own writings too -- and whatever “post-Timothy” parts of whichever canon -- were included in “all scripture.”
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